| Abstrakt: |
A 45-year-old international business man is taken emergently to the operating room because of an acute abdomen and demonstration of free air under the diaphragm on chest x-ray. Surgical exploration reveals a perforated proximal body gastric ulcer. This patient has had no history of peptic ulcer disease and has been, essentially, free of health-related problems. Which of the following should be the operative plan of choice? (A) Truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty (B) Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy (C) Highly selective vagotomy (D) Omental buttress repair (Graham patch) (E) Subtotal gastrectomy [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR] |
